Bacteriological

1	The most probable number test should be performed on a potable water sample instead of the membrane filtration test if
	a.		the sample pH is greater than 8.5.
	b.		the sample is visibly turbid.
	c.		previous testing has indicated high nuisance counts in the sample.
	d.		both b and c.

2	Results from the Multiple-Tube Fermentation Technique for members of the Total Coliform Group are expressed as
	a.		DPD
	b.		MF
	c.		MGD
	d.		MPN/100mL

3	In bacteriological sample bottles, sodium thiosulfate is used to
	a.		buffer the pH to 7.0
	b.		buffer the pH to 8.5
	c.		oxide the residual chlorine
	d.		reduce the residual chlorine

4	A negative control culture for fecal coliforms is
	a.		Enterobacter aerogenes
	b.		Escheirchia coli
	c.		Crytosporidium parvum
	d.		Giardia lamblia

5	When performing microbiological examinations, sterilize glassware at
	a.		121 degrees C for 15 minutes
	b.		170 degrees C for 1 hour
	c.		103 degrees C for 1 hour
	d.		550 degrees C for 20 minutes

6.	The membrane filter procedure for fecal coliform requires a very specific incubation temperature of
	a.		44.5 ±0.1º C
	b.		45.4 ±0.1º C
	c.		44.5 ±0.2º C
	d.		45.4 ±0.2º C

7.	When computing the density of a Fecal Coliform plate, what is the desired range of colonies?
	a.		1 -100
	b.		20 - 80
	c.		10 - 60
	d.		20 -60

8.	When using the autoclave for sterilization of glassware used for the determination of fecal coliform, the autoclave must reach a temperature of
	a.		250º C
	b.		100º C
	c.		121º C
	d.		270º C

9.	Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the fecal coliform group of bacteria?
	a.		Non-spore forming
	b.		Rod shaped
	c.		Gram positive
	d.		Gram negative

10.	In order for fecal coliform to be an indication of pathogenic bacteria it must meet a criteria. Which one of the following is not a criteria?
	a.		Should be present in greater numbers than the pathogen
	b.		Should be a pathogen
	c.		Should be found in warm blooded animals
	d.		Should not be a pathogen

11.	The MPN test for coliform bacteria has three test phases. Which of the following is not a phase?
	a.		Presumptive
	b.		Completed
	c.		Calculation
	d.		Confirmed

12.	What are some of the materials need to test for coliform bacteria by the MPN method?
	a.		Brilliant Green Bile Broth, refrigerator, membrane filters
	b.		Lauryl Tryptose Broth, incubator, and autoclave
	c.		M-Endo Broth, autoclave, thermometer and fermentation tubes
	d.		a and c.

13.	What is the benefit of using toxicity testing for water pollution evaluation?
	a.		Toxicity testing costs less
	b.		Chemical and physical tests don't assess the impact on the aquatic biota
	c.		Toxicity tests are a longer test so they are better
	d.		Chemical and physical tests don't tell you anything

14.	To determine if an impact is likely to be observed a single concentration is set up with multiple replicates for 24 to 96 hours. This is called
	a.		range-finding test
	b.		screening test
	c.		definitive test
	d.		either b or c

15.	What test would typically be used for a screening test and have a LC50 as the single endpoint?
	a.		Acute Test
	b.		Chronic test
	c.		Lethal dose concentration
	d.		none of the above

16.	What test would typically be used for the determination of effects on the different life stages and/or growth and reproduction of the test organism?
	a.		Acute Test
	b.		Chronic test
	c.		Lowest Observed Effect Test
	d.		No Observed Effect Test

17.	If the test water to be used has high BOD and/or COD or high bacterial populations, what test is this likely to effect?
	a.		Static Test
	b.		Renewal Test
	c.		Flow-through Test
	d.		Acute Test

18.	The toxicant concentration estimated to produce death in a specified portion of test organisms is the
	a.		LC -Lethal Concentration
	b.		EC - Effective Concentration
	c.		IC - Inhibiting Concentration
	d.		NOEC - No Observed Effect Concentration
	e.		LOEC - Lowest Observed Effect Concentration

19.	The toxicant concentration estimated to cause a specific percentage inhibition or impairment in a qualitative biological function is the
	a.		LC -Lethal Concentration
	b.		EC - Effective Concentration
	c.		IC - Inhibiting Concentration
	d.		NOEC - No Observed Effect Concentration
	e.		LOEC - Lowest Observed Effect Concentration

20.	The amount of toxicant that enters the organism is called the
	a.		dose
	b.		concentration
	c.		effluent
	d.		mortality

21.	What is the treatment in a toxicity test that duplicates all the conditions of the exposure treatment but contains no test material?
	a.		Static
	b.		Number 1
	c.		Control
	d.		First

22.	The test in which organisms are exposed to solutions of the same composition that are changed periodically during the test period is called the
	a.		flow-through test
	b.		renewal test
	c.		static test
	d.		periodic test

23..	This is the lowest toxicant concentration in which the values for the measured response are statistically significantly different from those in the control
	a.		LC -Lethal Concentration
	b.		EC - Effective Concentration
	c.		IC - Inhibiting Concentration
	d.		NOEC - No Observed Effect Concentration
	e.		LOEC - Lowest Observed Effect Concentration

24.	If the waste concentration does not demonstrate a 96-h LC50 then there will be no harm to the receiving water biota.
	a.		true
	b.		false

25.	Different test species will have different sensitivities to a toxicant.
	a.		true
	b.		false

26..	Pimephales promelas is a zooplankton that may be used in acute and/or chronic test, the chronic endpoint could be mortality and reproduction.
	a.		true
	b.		false

Compliance [often a local issue]

1.	What is the relationship between the Federal Register and the Code of Federal Regulations?
	a.		The Register announces changes to the Regulations
	b.		There is no relation between the two
	c.		The Register announces all the court decisions based on the Regulations
	d.		The Regulations publishes functions of Congress and the Register has White House concerns

2.	Which part of 40CFR concerns wastewater analysis?
	a.		136
	b.		141
	c.		258
	d.		264

3.	A new method of analysis may be employed provided one of the following agencies can be convinced by parallel data that the new method is equivalent to the approved method. The approving agency is
	a.		Standard Methods Board of Testing Procedures
	b.		United States Bureau of Standards
	c.		ASTM Committee for Testing Procedures
	d.		United States Environmental Protection Agency

Nitrogen

1.	Total Kjeldahl Nitrogen is
	a.		Ammonia, organic, and nitrate
	b.		Ammonia, nitrite, and nitrate
	c.		Azide, nitrite, and organic
	d.		Ammonia and organic

2.	Total Kjeldahl Nitrogen (TKN) is defined as the total sum of
	a.		nitrates and nitrites
	b.		nitrates and methane
	c.		organic nitrogen and ammonia
	d.		organic nitrogen and nitrates

3.	The Kjeldahl method is a method of determining
	a.		pH concentration
	b.		nitrogen
	c.		chlorine
	d.		hydrogen sulfide

4.	The most oxidized form of nitrogen which may be found in waters and wastewater is
	a.		Organic Nitrogen
	b.		Ammonia
	c.		nitrates
	d.		nitrites

5.	The cadmium reduction method is recommended for determining what concentration range of nitrate nitrogen
	a.		0.01 to 1.0 ppm
	b.		less than 0.1 ppm
	c.		1 to 10 ppm
	d.		0.5 to 20 ppm

6.	What is the interference for the ammonia specific ion electrode?
	a.		Total organic carbon
	b.		Alkalinity
	c.		Boric acid
	d.		Amines

7.	In the preliminary distillation step for the Kjeldahl ammonia, the sample is buffered to a pH of
	a.		less than 4
	b.		7.0
	c.		9.5
	d.		greater than 10

8.	The intermediate oxidation stage of nitrogen between ammonia and nitrate nitrogen is
	a.		total Kjeldahl nitrogen
	b.		nitrite nitrogen
	c.		organic nitrogen
	d.		none of the above

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